Test 3 -Project Management
Chapter 14
1) Overall, which are the most common STIs in Canada?
a. chlamydia and HIV
b. chlamydia and gonorrhea
c. human papillomavirus and genital herpes
d. human papillomavirus and gonorrhea.
Answer: c
2) Of the reportable bacterial STIs in Canada, the most common is
a. syphilis.
b. HIV.
c. gonorrhea.
d. chlamydia.
Answer: d
3) How many people in the world are estimated by the World Health Organization to be infected with an STI each year?
a. 112 million
b. 67 million
c. 340 million
d. 692 million
Answer: c
4) Which of the following is not one of the factors that may have contributed to the increase in the reported rate of chlamydia in recent years in Canada?
a. an increase in the number of people being tested
b. an increase in the number of gonorrhea cases misdiagnosed as chlamydia
c. more sensitive tests being used
d. an increase in the number of people who were infected
Answer: b
5) Approximately what percentage of chlamydia infections among men does not have symptoms?
a. less than 15%
b. less than 30%
c. up to 50%
d. up to 70%
Answer: c
6) Approximately what percentage of chlamydia infections in women has no symptoms?
a. less than 15%
b. less than 30%
c. up to 50%
d. up to 70%
Answer: d
7) If left untreated, a woman’s chlamydia infection can result in
a. HPV.
b. PID.
c. SID.
d. HSV.
Answer: b
8) Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of chlamydia is accurate?
a. It is not a treatable infection.
b. It is treatable but the underlying infection cannot be cured.
c. Treatment involves a lengthy course of anti-viral medication.
d. It is effectively treated with antibiotics.
Answer: d
9) Marcia has just learned from her gynecologist that she has a chlamydia infection. He advises her to immediately begin antibiotic therapy. Marcia learns that, without treatment, she runs an increased risk of
a. cervical cancer.
b. uterine cancer.
c. kidney damage.
d. infertility.
Answer: d
10) A man who experiences a discharge from his penis that is clear at first but then becomes yellow to yellow-green within a couple of days is likely to have
a. chlamydia or gonorrhea.
b. chlamydia or syphilis.
c. gonorrhea or HPV.
d. gonorrhea or syphilis.
Answer: a
11) In nearly half of the cases of gonorrhea, individuals were also infected with
a. herpes.
b. chlamydia.
c. hepatitis B.
d. HIV.
Answer: b
12) What is the chance that a woman will contract gonorrhea after being exposed once by having sex with an infected partner?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 40%
d. 50%
Answer: d
13) What is the chance that a man will contract gonorrhea after being exposed once by having sex with an infected partner?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 40%
d. 50%
Answer: b
14) The primary site of gonorrhea infection in women is the
a. cervix.
b. labia.
c. fallopian tubes.
d. endometrial lining.
Answer: a
15) If left untreated, gonorrhea in women may result in
a. HPV.
b. SID.
c. PID.
d. HSV.
Answer: c
16) In men, gonorrhea may lead to __________, which can cause fertility problems.
a. epidymitis
b. pelvic inflammatory disease
c. prodromal symptoms
d. cervicitis
Answer: a
17) Pharyngeal gonorrhea is characterized by
a. a yellow-green pus at the tip of the penis.
b. a persistent sore throat and throat infection.
c. swelling and inflammation of the cervix.
d. eye problems that could lead to blindness.
Answer: b
18) Because of resistant strains, the recommended antibiotic for treating gonorrhea is
a. ceftriaxone.
b. penicillin.
c. doxycycline.
d. erythromycin.
Answer: a
19) Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of gonorrhea is accurate?
a. It is not a treatable infection.
b. It is treatable, but the underlying infection cannot be cured.
c. Treatment involves a lengthy course of anti-viral medication.
d. It is effectively treated with antibiotics.
Answer: d
20) The bacterium that causes syphilis is
a. ureaplasma urealyticum.
b. trichmonas vaginalis.
c. treponema pallidum.
d. S. sarcoptes.
Answer: c
21) Syphilis can be transmitted in all of the following ways except
a. oral-genital contact.
b. using the same toilet seat as an infected person.
c. touching a chancre.
d. anal intercourse.
Answer: b
22) Glen woke up this morning with a skin rash consisting of painless, red bumps over most of his body. He is running a slight temperature. At first he thought it was simply the flu, but then he remembered that he had seen a spot similar to those on his body but larger on his penis several months earlier. Glen’s symptoms would be characteristic of
a. secondary stage syphilis.
b. primary stage syphilis.
c. latency stage syphilis.
d. tertiary stage syphilis.
Answer: a
23) In a syphilis infection, a chancre usually heals in a few
a. hours.
b. days.
c. weeks.
d. months.
Answer: c
24) Which statement is true about latent stage syphilis?
a. The latent stage is marked by periodic outbreaks of chancres.
b. A person can be in the latent stage from 1 to 40 years.
c. In the latent stage, a mother cannot transmit syphilis to her child during delivery.
d. Spirochetes stop multiplying.
Answer: b
25) The treatment of choice for syphilis is
a. a dose of T. pallidum antibodies.
b. ciprofloxacin.
c. penicillin.
d. doxycycline.
Answer: c
26) The most common symptom for women with vaginitis is
a. genital irritation.
b. itching and burning during urination.
c. inflammation.
d. odorous discharge.
Answer: d
27) Bacterial vaginosis is most often caused by
a. candida albicans.
b. gardnerella vaginalis.
c. trichomoniasis vaginalis.
d. molluscum contagiosum.
Answer: b
28) Which is not another term for candidiasis?
a. thrush
b. moniliasis
c. vaginosis
d. yeast infection
Answer: c
29) Areez is seeing her gynecologist because she is experiencing itching, burning, and inflammation of the labia. In addition, she has noticed a white, thick, curd-like discharge. Areez’s symptoms are characteristic of
a. a gardnerella infection.
b. a trichomonal infection.
c. a candida infection.
d. a gonorrheal infection.
Answer: c
30) How many Canadian women will experience at least one yeast infection in their lifetime?
a. 15%
b. 30%
c. 60%
d. 75%
Answer: d
31) What percentage of Canadian women will have at least one episode of candidiasis during their lifetime?
a. 25%
b. 45%
c. 75%
d. 95%
Answer: c
32) Trichomonas vaginalis is a
a. bacteria.
b. parasite.
c. virus.
d. fungus.
Answer: b
33) Kendra complains of burning and itching in the vulva. In addition, she has noticed a foamy, whitish to yellow-green discharge. Which STI has Kendra contracted?
a. gardnerella
b. trichomoniasis
c. herpes
d. chlamydia
Answer: b
34) Of the following STIs, which can be transmitted through infected semen or vaginal discharges on towels, washcloths, bedclothes, and toilet seats?
a. candidiasis
b. gonorrhea
c. syphilis
d. trichomoniasis
Answer: d
35) Which of the following is not a bacterial STI?
a. syphilis
b. trichomoniasis
c. chlamydia
d. gonorrhea
Answer: b
36) What are viruses?
a. bacterial agents
b. tiny particles of DNA surrounded by a protein coating
c. particles that respond to antibodies in the blood stream
d. genetic mutations that enter the body through the skin or blood stream
Answer: b
37) The majority of people with HIV live in countries
a. in the northern hemisphere.
b. with higher than average numbers of gay males in the population.
c. that are low- or middle-income.
d. that are middle- or high-income.
Answer: c
38) In Africa, most new HIV infections are transmitted through
a. men having sex with men.
b. heterosexual sex.
c. contaminated needles.
d. blood transfusions.
Answer: b
39) It is estimated that ______ of people in Canada with HIV are unaware that they are infected.
a. 6%
b. 16%
c. 26%
d. 46%
Answer: c
40) In the years just prior to 1997, women accounted for about 7% of AIDS cases in Canada. By 2008, women accounted for about _____ of AIDS cases.
a. 14%
b. 24%
c. 34%
d. 44%
Answer: b
41) Among First Nations people, the most common means of HIV transmission is/are
a. contaminated blood products.
b. men who have sex with men.
c. mother to child transmission.
d. injection drug use.
Answer: d
42) In 2008, what percentage of HIV-positive test reports was from men who have sex with men?
a. 45%
b. 65%
c. 85%
d. 95%
Answer: a
43) HIV directly attacks the immune system by invading and destroying a type of lymphocyte called the
a. reverse transcriptase.
b. B cell.
c. CD4 cell.
d. antibodies.
Answer: c
44) Shortly after infection with the HIV virus, individuals will
a. have no symptoms.
b. begin to have night sweats and chronic diarrhea.
c. experience a slow decline in circulating antibody cells.
d. have flu-like symptoms that last for a few weeks, then disappear.
Answer: d
45) Which is not a disease connected with AIDS?
a. pneumonia
b. cryptorchidism
c. Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. toxoplasmosis of the brain
Answer: b
46) Female-to-male HIV transmission through vaginal intercourse is _________ compared to male-to-female transmission through vaginal intercourse.
a. equally likely
b. less likely
c. slightly more likely
d. much more likely
Answer: b
47) Worldwide, the main route of transmission for HIV is
a. heterosexual sex.
b. through blood and blood products.
c. through shared needles.
d. homosexual sex.
Answer: a
48) Which is not a bodily fluid that can transmit HIV?
a. blood
b. breast milk
c. vaginal secretions
d. saliva
Answer: d
49) In testing for HIV, an ELISA test detects
a. the number of CD4 cells circulating in the blood.
b. the amount of virus circulating in the blood.
c. the amount of virus in semen or vaginal fluids.
d. the presence of antibodies to HIV in the blood.
Answer: d
50) Highly active antiretroviral therapy for HIV/AIDS includes
a. Cervarix.
b. protease inhibitor.
c. enzyme-linked antigen.
d. ELISA.
Answer: b
51) Canadian researchers have found that HAART
a. reduces the risk of HIV transmission.
b. increases the risk of HIV transmission for men who have sex with men.
c. has no effect on HIV transmission.
d. increases the risk of HIV transmission for people who have other STIs.
Answer: a
52) The approximate percentage of genital herpes infections that are asymptomatic is
a. 40%.
b. 60%.
c. 80%.
d. 98%.
Answer: b
53) Which variants of the herpes virus can be transmitted through sexual contact?
a. HSV 1, 2, and 3
b. HSV 1 and 2
c. HSV 2 and 3
d. HSV 2
Answer: b
54) In regard to transmission of the herpes virus, which statement is false?
a. Genital herpes can only be spread to others during an outbreak.
b. HSV-1 is easily transmitted through shared drinking glasses.
c. The herpes viruses can survive for several hours on toilet seats or other objects.
d. Herpes can be spread from one part of the body to another.
Answer: a
55) Which of the following statements about HSV-2 and condom use is most accurate?
a. Condoms do not offer any protection against HSV-2 transmission.
b. Consistent condom use reduces the risk of HSV-2 transmission but is not effective for lesions not covered by the condom.
c. People who use condoms consistently do not need to be concerned about HSV-2.
d. Condoms only reduce the risk of HSV-2 transmission when a person is having an outbreak.
Answer: b
56) With respect to the treatment of genital herpes, which of the following statements is false?
a. There are no treatments available that can lessen the symptoms of herpes.
b. Warm bathes and aspirin may reduce pain during flare-ups.
c. Antibiotics are not effective in treating herpes.
d. Antiviral medications can reduce the frequency and duration of outbreaks.
Answer: a
57) With respect to the psychological and social impact of herpes, which of the following statements is false?
a. People who view their infection as a manageable condition rather than as a medical calamity will have an easier time adjusting.
b. The psychological impact of herpes can be more distressing than its physical effects.
c. People with herpes are generally unable to establish and maintain intimate relationships.
d. Unattached people with herpes can be advised to look for partners who are trusting and caring.
Answer: c
58) What is hepatitis?
a. inflammation of the liver
b. inflammation of the large intestines
c. inflammation of the small intestines
d. inflammation of the pituitary gland
Answer: a
Diff: 1
Type: MC
Page Reference: 394
Skill: Recall
59) Which is not a symptom of people with acute hepatitis?
a. jaundice
b. nausea
c. loss of appetite
d. genital lesions
Answer: d
60) Which type of hepatitis is associated with contaminated food but can also be transmitted through oral-anal contact?
a. hepatitis D
b. hepatitis B
c. hepatitis A
d. hepatitis C
Answer: c
61) Which is true regarding transmission of hepatitis?
a. Hepatitis A can be transmitted through vaginal intercourse, fellatio, or cunnilingus.
b. Hepatitis C is transmitted through contact with infected fecal matter.
c. Hepatitis D can be transmitted by contact with contaminated saliva.
d. Hepatitis B can be transmitted sexually, or through contaminated blood, menstrual blood, nasal secretions, or personal items like toothbrushes.
Answer: d
62) The world’s most common sexually transmitted infection is
a. HPV.
b. chlamydia.
c. gonorrhea.
d. HSV.
Answer: a
63) Which of the following statements about HPV infection is false?
a. It is estimated that up to 70% of Canadians will have an HPV infection in their lifetime.
b. Up to 90% of HPV infections will clear within two years.
c. Similar to HSV, HPV is considered to be a lifelong infection.
d. HPV types 16 and 18, which are responsible for most cases of cervical cancer, do not cause genital warts.
Answer: c
64) Which of the following statements about HPV is false?
a. Sexual intercourse is a common means of HPV transmission.
b. The Gardasil vaccine protects against cervical cancer but not against genital warts.
c. Consistent condom use reduces the risk of HPV infection.
d. HPV types 6 and 11 cause genital warts.
Answer: b
65) Which of the following statements about genital warts is true?
a. Removing genital warts eliminates the virus from the body.
b. A person infected with HPV types 6 or 11 will develop genital warts within a few weeks.
c. Although genital warts may recur after treatment they eventually will clear up.
d. Warts caused by HPV only infect the genital area.
Answer: c
66) HPV has been associated with an increased risk of
a. cervical and penile cancer.
b. pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility.
c. ovarian and prostate cancer.
d. pelvic inflammatory disease and testicular cancer.
Answer: a
67) Which is not true about pediculosis?
a. It is also called “crabs.”
b. It causes itching.
c. It can be transmitted only through intercourse.
d. It can be treated with a prescription medication, a 1% solution of lindane.
Answer: c
68) Joe is suffering from intense itching in the pubic region. He notices that there are tiny red lines on his groin and a few areas that look like welts. What has Joe contracted?
a. trichomoniasis
b. scabies
c. molluscum contagiosum
d. pubic lice
Answer: b
69) Which of the following is not a biological factor involved in the epidemiology of STIs?
a. gender
b. asymptomatic cases
c. alcohol and drug abuse
d. lifelong infections
Answer: c
70) A study by Klein and Knauper (2003) found that some young people are less likely to use condoms because they
a. are paralyzed by fear of STIs.
b. underestimate the effectiveness of condoms in preventing STIs.
c. do not know how to use condoms properly.
d. purposely avoid thinking about STIs.
Answer: d
71) Among sexually active women, condom use
a. is more common among 20- to 24-year-olds than among 15- to 19-year-olds.
b. is more common among 15- to 19-year-olds than among 20- to 24-year-olds.
c. is equally common among 15- to 19- and 20- to 24-year-olds.
d. more common among 30- to 39-year-olds than among 15- to 19-year-olds.
Answer: b
72) Which of the following was not a reason given for not using condoms by gay and bisexual men participating in an Ontario study?
a. belief that condoms are not effective in preventing HIV
b. fear of erection loss with condom use
c. being in a trusting relationship
d. low self-esteem
Answer: a
73) Which of the following statements concerning the STI risk of oral sex is most accurate?
a. Oral sex carries no risk of STI infection.
b. Oral sex is higher risk for STI transmission than intercourse.
c. Oral sex and intercourse carry an equal risk for HIV infection.
d. Oral sex carries a lower risk for HIV and some STIs than intercourse, but risk is not eliminated.
Answer: d
74) Which of the following is not a reason identified in the literature reviewed in the textbook for why some women are at high risk for STI?
a. Women who love their partners are less likely to believe that they will contract an STI.
b. Women tend to be less concerned about STI than men.
c. Women who have abusive partners are less able to protect themselves from STI.
d. Women are more biologically susceptible to STI than men.
Answer: b
75) The IMB model for risk reduction involves
a. information, monogamy, behavioural skills.
b. injection drugs, multiple partners, bias.
c. information, motivation, behavioural skills.
d. identity, monogamy, biological susceptibility
Answer: c
76) A 2006 Public Health Agency of Canada study found that over half of Canadians
a. were unaware of the connection between HIV and AIDS.
b. had low or moderate levels of knowledge about HIV/AIDS.
c. had high levels of knowledge about HIV/AIDS.
d. had either very low or very high levels of knowledge about HIV/AIDS.
Answer: b
77) During his four years at university Steve had three monogamous relationships in which he and his partner stopped using condoms only after they were together for a few weeks and Steve was certain that his partner was only having sex with him. During the same time period, Sanjay had four hook-ups where condoms were used with partners that he had never met before. Based on what we know about them, which statement about Steve and Sanjay’s STI risk is most accurate?
a. Steve and Sanjay are at roughly equal risk for STI.
b. We do not have enough information to compare Steve and Sanjay’s risk for STI.
c. Steve is at higher risk for STI than Sanjay.
d. Sanjay is at higher risk for STI than Steve.
Answer: c
78) Which of the following is unlikely to be accounted for in a rational decision-making model of STI risk-taking?
a. a person deciding not to use condoms because they have determined that their STI risk is low
b. a person agreeing to have unprotected sex because they don’t want to lose their partner
c. a committed monogamous couple switching to oral contraception after two years together and getting HIV and other STI tests
d. after taking a sexuality course, a person deciding to use condoms more consistently
Answer: b
79) Men who have sex with men but who self-identify as heterosexual
a. use condoms less than men who only have sex with women.
b. use condoms less than men who identify as gay.
c. use condoms more than men who identify as gay.
d. use condoms equally as much as men who identify as gay.
Answer: b
80) For each of the following, match the symptoms or description of the STI with the correct organism.
81) In Canada, there are no national statistics available on the prevalence of genital herpes.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
82) Of the STIs for which cases are reported, chlamydia is the most common.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
83) During the latent stage, syphilis can lie dormant for up to five years.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
84) Syphilis requires antiviral medications to be cured.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
85) About a quarter of people with HIV in Canada are unaware that they are infected.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
86) People who are HIV-positive but have no symptoms are unlikely to transmit the virus to others.
a. True
b. False Answer: b
87) Antibiotics other than penicillin are highly effective in eradicating chlamydia infections.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
88) STIs can be transmitted through oral sex.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
89) Using condoms does not reduce the risk of genital herpes.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
90) The use of antibiotics and/or birth control pills can cause changes in the vaginal walls allowing for candidiasis to enter.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
91) There is evidence to suggest that HAART may reduce HIV transmission.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
92) The most common STI is HPV.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
93) John has more than one sexual partner at a time. John is a serial monogamist.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
94) More than 85% of all positive HIV test reports in Canada occurred in the provinces of Ontario, Alberta, and British Columbia.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
95) HPV types 6 and 11 cause genital warts. These same HPV types also cause cervical cancer.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
96) Differentiate between common bacterial and viral STIs, giving several examples of each. Discuss how treatments for bacterial and viral STIs differ.
Answer:
– bacterial: chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis
– viral: HIV, HPV, HSV
– bacterial treated with antibiotics; different treatments for HIV, HPV, HSV
97) Outline the four stages of syphilis infection by discussing the symptoms associated with each stage.
Answer:
– 1: painless chancre forms at site of infection
– 2: skin rash, painless reddish raised bumps that darken and burst oozing discharge, swelling of joints, sore throat, headache, fever
– 3/latent: lie dormant, no symptoms
– 4: large ulcer on skin, muscle tissue, digestive organs, lungs, liver, etc. Can attack CNS or cardiovascular system (fatal)
98) List and discuss biological and social factors that place women at elevated risk for STI and HIV.
Answer:
– biological: more susceptible to STI infection than men; male-to-female transmission of HIV more likely than female-to-male transmission
– social: gender inequality (e.g., power, abuse)
99) Bart is a freshman at university. He’s thinking that there is a fair possibility that there will be opportunities for him to become sexually active over the next few years. Bart decides to create a sexual health plan for himself. What types of questions should Bart ask himself in creating his plan?
Answer:
– Does he want to be active? What sexual activities? What circumstances? What steps should he use to avoid STI/HIV (e.g., condom use)?
100) Discuss each of the ways HIV can be contracted and ways it cannot be contracted.
Answer:
– can: intercourse of any kind, cuts, blood, discharges
– cannot: saliva
101) List and discuss three social factors that contribute to the spread of STIs.
Answer:
– gender inequality, sexual orientation, group marginalization, province/territory, culture, social capital, societal attitudes
102) List and discuss three psychological factors that contribute to the spread of STIs.
Answer:
– perceived low risk, lack of communication, psychological obstacles to condom use, alcohol/drug abuse
103) List and discuss three biological factors that contribute to the spread of STIs.
Answer:
– multiple means of transmission, lifelong infections, asymptomatic cases, increased vulnerability, gender, lack of vaccines and cures
Chapter 15
1) From a statistical perspective, a behaviour is abnormal if it
a. deviates from the norm.
b. is listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.
c. correlates with pathological outcomes.
d. causes harm to the self or others.
Answer: a
2) Atypical sexual behaviours are
a. harmful by definition.
b. harmless by definition.
c. statistically normal.
d. statistically unusual.
Answer: d
3) The American Psychiatric Association defines a paraphilia as
a. a persistent inability to respond to normal sexual stimuli.
b. an atypical pattern of sexual arousal/behaviour that is considered problematic by the individual or society.
c. a repeated pattern of illegal sexual behaviour.
d. a repeated pattern of sexual behaviour that the person engaging in it knows is immoral.
Answer: b
4) Based on the information provided, which of the following individuals is most likely to be diagnosed with a paraphilia?
a. John, who can become sexually aroused only if he is watching other people (who don’t know he is watching) having sex.
b. Damon, who was arrested for distributing child pornography and sometimes watches videotapes of young children engaged in sexual acts because he thinks it’s funny.
c. Traci, who frequently fantasizes about spanking her partner.
d. Julio, who sometimes likes to wear his partner’s panties and bra when they have sex.
Answer: a
5) People with paraphilias usually feel that their urges are
a. parsimonious.
b. normal.
c. random.
d. uncontrollable.
Answer: d
6) A person with a paraphilia typically
a. has difficulty sleeping during periods of episodic sexual behaviours.
b. engages in aberrant sexual behaviours during periods of low anxiety.
c. replays the paraphilic act in sexual fantasies to stimulate arousal during masturbation.
d. suppresses memories of his/her paraphilic behaviour.
Answer: c
7) Theorists have speculated that paraphilias represent a type of sexual
a. inhibition.
b. psychosis.
c. compulsion.
d. bipolar disorder.
Answer: c
8) Which factor tends to separate a paraphilia from a normal variant in sexual behaviour?
a. the frequency of the behaviour
b. the type of behaviour
c. feeling helpless to resist the behaviour
d. occasionally fantasizing about the behaviour
Answer: c
9) Which of the following statements about paraphilias is false?
a. The prevalence of paraphilias is unknown.
b. Paraphilias are more common among men than women.
c. A psychiatric diagnosis of paraphilia requires that the person is distressed by his/her sexual urges.
d. Some cases of paraphilia are harmless and victimless.
Answer: c
10) It is argued that sexual preference for particular types of people and activities are strongly influenced by cultural values. Because of such concerns, Charles Moser has proposed that the concept of ________ should be used in place of paraphilia.
a. atypical sexual disorder (ASD)
b. sexual preference disorder (SPD)
c. sexual interest disorder (SID)
d. sexual attraction disorder (SAD)
Answer: c
11) Heather becomes especially aroused when her partner wears a cowboy hat during sex. This is an example of
a. transvestism.
b. fetishism.
c. partialism
d. exhibitionism.
Answer: b
12) In which disorder does an individual become sexually aroused by certain areas of the body?
a. voyeurism
b. exhibitionism
c. frotteurism
d. partialism
Answer: d
13) Which of the following statements about transvestism is true?
a. Transvestite men are often otherwise stereotypically masculine.
b. Transvestites generally wish to become the opposite sex.
c. Transvestism is equally common among men and women.
d. Transvestism is strongly correlated with sexual orientation.
Answer: a
14) Partialism is a fetish in which an individual becomes excessively aroused by particular
a. sexual acts.
b. racial characteristics.
c. non-human species.
d. body parts.
Answer: d
15) Finding objects associated with the other gender sexually alluring only when wearing them is a type of paraphilia known as
a. exhibitionism.
b. transvestism.
c. necrophilia.
d. frotteurism.
Answer: b
16) Lenny is sexually aroused by wearing women’s underwear. What type of paraphilia does he have?
a. pedophilia
b. fetishism
c. partialism
d. transvestism
Answer: d
17) Approximately what proportion of arrests for sexual offences involves exhibitionism?
a. 1/20
b. 1/20
c. 1/5
d. 1/3
Answer: d
18) Transvestism is often confused with
a. fetishism.
b. transsexualism.
c. partialism.
d. voyeurism.
Answer: b
19) Which of the following statements about exhibitionism is false?
a. Exhibitionists are often thought to be sexually repressed.
b. Exhibitionism is more common among men than women.
c. The frequency of exhibitionism increases after age 40.
d. Among exhibitionists, the urge to “flash” usually begins in early adolescence.
Answer: c
20) Enrico dresses up in a frilly gown and wears a long blonde wig at the annual motorcycle show to raise money for the local children’s hospital. Enrico’s behaviour
a. is typical of most transvestites.
b. does not indicate that he has a paraphilia.
c. indicates a fetish for women’s clothing.
d. is typical of exhibitionists.
Answer: b
21) Most transvestites
a. have antisocial personality disorders.
b. keep their behaviour private.
c. enjoy enticing men into a potential sexual encounter.
d. wear articles of female clothing when having sex with their wives.
Answer: b
22) Persistent urges to expose one’s genitals to unsuspecting people for sexual arousal is typical of
a. voyeurism.
b. scatologia.
c. exhibitionism.
d. hypoxyphilia.
Answer: c
23) Exhibitionists typically have
a. a developmental disability.
b. difficulty relating to women.
c. an extroverted personality type.
d. little difficulty establishing meaningful relationships.
Answer: b
24) According to an Ontario study, approximately how many exhibitionists go on to committing other crimes?
a. 45%
b. 30%
c. 15%
d. 5%
Answer: b
25) The typical exhibitionist is
a. older, single, and sexually immature.
b. older, happily married, and sexually over-expressive.
c. young, shy, and sexually repressed.
d. young, single, but with social skills.
Answer: c
26) Exhibitionistic behaviour usually begins
a. after age 40.
b. between the ages of 20 and 30.
c. between the ages of 16 and 20.
d. between age 13 and 16.
Answer: d
27) Which of the following men is most likely to be diagnosed as an exhibitionist?
a. Alfredo, who likes to wear tight fitting shirts to show off his pecs.
b. Bob, who becomes erect when his partner smiles approvingly as he takes off his clothes.
c. Steve, who likes to engage women in conversation at the beach with an erection visible under his speedo.
d. Osama who is completely comfortable working as a male stripper.
Answer: c
28) People engaging in chat scatologia are sexually aroused by
a. sending obscene emails and instant messages.
b. talking about feces.
c. having their sex partners “talk dirty.”
d. manipulating and deceiving people in order to persuade them to have sex.
Answer: a
29) Which of the following statements about obscene phone callers is false?
a. The typical obscene phone caller is a heterosexual male.
b. Obscene phone callers usually target a woman they have seen but not met.
c. Obscene phone callers are often hoping that their victim will express shock.
d. Women who make obscene phone calls are more likely to be motivated by rage than by sexual arousal.
Answer: b
30) Mark bought an apartment on the twelfth floor across from a busy hotel in order to catch couples undressing and having intercourse. Mark’s behaviour is characteristic of
a. fetishism.
b. voyeurism.
c. exhibitionism.
d. scatologia.
Answer: b
31) Bobby likes to masturbate while peeking at a woman through a window while she undresses. This type of behaviour is called
a. frotteurism.
b. exhibitionism.
c. voyeurism.
d. fetishism.
Answer: c
32) In a Canadian study of university students, what percentages of females and males reported that they would watch a couple having sex if there was no chance they would be caught?
a. 10%; 60%
b. 40%; 70%
c. 50%; 90%
d. 5%; 40%
Answer: b
33) Which is true about voyeurs?
a. They typically do not attempt to have sex with the people they watch.
b. They are typically psychologically introverted.
c. They are usually also exhibitionists.
d. They tend to be equally aroused by pornography.
Answer: a
34) Which of the following individuals would fit the definition of a voyeur?
a. Anita, who regularly masturbates while watching porn on the internet even though there is a high probability that her partner will walk-in and see what she is doing.
b. Ho, who asks his partner to masturbate on the bed while he peeks at her while hiding in the closet.
c. Mika, who enjoys going to strip clubs several times a month either alone or with her male friends.
d. Tom, who masturbates while scanning the condominium across the street with binoculars so he can watch people having sex.
Answer: d
35) People who become sexually aroused through the experience of pain or humiliation are sexual
a. sadists.
b. toucherists.
c. masochists.
d. frotteurists.
Answer: c
36) The only paraphilia that is found with some degree of frequency in females is
a. necrophilia.
b. masochism.
c. exhibitionism.
d. fetishism.
Answer: b
37) Which of the following statements about masochism is false?
a. The eroticization of mild forms of pain falls within the normal range of sexual variation.
b. A sexual masochist is also likely to enjoy other forms of pain not associated with sex.
c. Masochism is the most common paraphilia among women.
d. Auto-erotic asphyxia is a form of masochism.
Answer: b
38) The practice of being restrained in masochistic behaviour is called?
a. flogging
b. bondage
c. crowning
d. shacking
Answer: b
39) Which of the following statements about sado-mascochism (S&M) is false?
a. Sexual sadists and masochists often form relationships.
b. S&M is a variation of B&D.
c. S&M becomes pathological when it is non-consenting and harmful.
d. Occasional S&M is common among the general population.
Answer: b
40) People who become sexually aroused by inflicting pain or humiliation on others are known as
a. frotteurists.
b. sadists.
c. masochists.
d. exhibitionists.
Answer: b
41) Which of the following statements about sado-mascochism is false?
a. It is the submissive partner who uses a safe word when his or her limit has been exceeded.
b. There is no evidence that sado-masochists have greater difficulty than other people in forming intimate relationships.
c. For some sado-masochists, arousal is derived from the ritual of control rather than the infliction of physical pain.
d. Research indicates that most sado-masochists have diverse forms of mental illness.
Answer: d
42) Bradley uses neckties to build an elaborate contraption. While he masturbates, he leans into a harness that puts pressure on the vessels in his neck. As he approaches orgasm, he increases the pressure to cut off oxygen to the brain. Bradley’s activity is typical of
a. hypoxyphilia.
b. frotteurism.
c. necrophilia.
d. coprophilia.
Answer: a
43) Who is “sadism” named after?
a. a character in an Edgar Alan Poe novel
b. French aristocrat Francois de Sadis
c. French author Marquis de Sade
d. Caligula, the Roman emperor who was known to become sexually aroused when punishing slaves
Answer: c
44) Toucherism is a form of
a. exhibitionism.
b. frotteurism.
c. voyeurism.
d. fetishism.
Answer: b
45) Frotteurism involves urges to
a. have sex with prostitutes.
b. rub against or touch a non-consenting person.
c. augment sexual arousal by cutting off oxygen supplies to the brain.
d. use enemas to heighten arousal.
Answer: b
46) In the Kinsey studies, how prevalent was zoophilia?
a. About 20% of both men and women reported having had sexual contact with animals.
b. About 20% of males but only 1% of females reported having had sexual contact with animals.
c. About 8% of men and 3–4% of women reported having had sexual contact with an animal.
d. Only 1–2% of men and women reported having had some sexual contact with an animal.
Answer: c
47) In the Kinsey studies, what percentage of adolescent farm boys had achieved orgasm through sexual contact with farm animals?
a. 5%
b. 8%
c. 11%
d. 17%
Answer: d
48) Which of the following paraphilias involves the urge to have sex with dead bodies?
a. homicidal sadism
b. necrophilia
c. corpsophilia
d. coprophilia
Answer: b
49) William needs anal stimulation through enemas to achieve sexual arousal and gratification. William’s paraphilia is called
a. coprophilia
b. klismaphilia
c. frotteurism
d. urophilia
Answer: b
50) If urine becomes eroticized during childhood, a person might develop a paraphilia called
a. klismaphilia.
b. urophilia.
c. scatophilia.
d. urinary scatologia.
Answer: b
51) A recent study used electroencephalography (EEG) to investigate electrical responses in the brain among paraphilics and control subjects. It was found that paraphilic men showed a significantly greater response in the ________ part of the brain.
a. left frontal
b. right frontal
c. right mid-brain
d. left mid-brain
Answer: a
52) Classical psychoanalytic theory suggests that many cases of paraphilia are psychological defenses against
a. pre-pubertal incest.
b. intense feelings of inferiority that transfer to psychosexuality.
c. unresolved castration anxiety.
d. the id overwhelming the super ego during sexual fantasy.
Answer: c
53) As a boy, Jonathan would hide in his mother’s closet and masturbate. As he continued this practice through the early years of puberty he began to eroticize his mother’s shoes which were in the closet. Over time, Jonathan developed a shoe fetish. Given the information available, which theory offers the best explanation for Jonathan’s fetish?
a. psychoanalytic
b. sociological
c. cognitive-behavioural
d. psycho-biological
Answer: c
54) Martin Weinberg suggests that the sado-masochistic lifestyle might reflect
a. an attempt to reverse the power relationships that exist within society.
b. an association learned in childhood between sexual arousal and punishment.
c. an inability of the participants to conceptualize sexual behaviour as a way of giving and receiving affection.
d. predisposing factors such as difficulty forming intimate relationships.
Answer: a
55) If a boy repeatedly observes exhibitionistic behaviour, he might be led to eroticize the act of exposing himself. This would be an example of the ________ as an explanation of how a paraphilia develops.
a. psychoanalytic perspective
b. cognitive- behavioural perspective
c. sociological perspective
d. integrated perspective
Answer: b
56) John Money theorized that every individual has a mental template of an ideal lover and the types of stimuli that are sexually arousing. Formed in childhood, this template is called a
a. sexual script.
b. sexual schema.
c. lovemap.
d. lustmap.
Answer: c
57) Which of the following is true regarding treatment of paraphilias?
a. Most people with paraphilias are distressed by their behaviour and seek help.
b. Many people with paraphilias seek treatment only after they come into conflict with the law.
c. People with paraphilias are highly likely to be motivated to change their behaviour.
d. People with paraphilias, treated or untreated, tend to take responsibility for their behaviour.
Answer: b
58) Which of the following statements about the treatment of paraphilic sex offenders is false?
a. Many sex offenders do not want treatment if they have a paraphilia.
b. Unless the offender is motivated to change, treatment is unlikely to be successful.
c. Paraphilic sex offenders typically claim that they are able, if necessary, to control their paraphilic behaviour.
d. Many sex offenders only receive treatment because they have been referred by the court system.
Answer: c
59) Which is not a technique used in cognitive-behavioural therapy for paraphilia?
a. stimulus substitution
b. covert sensitization
c. aversion therapy
d. desensitization
Answer: a
60) A behaviour therapy that attempts to break the link between the sexual stimulus and sexual arousal is called
a. aversion therapy.
b. systematic desensitization.
c. covert sensitization.
d. modelling.
Answer: b
61) Pairing undesirable sexual behaviour with negative stimuli, such as mild electric shocks, is a treatment technique called
a. systematic desensitization.
b. orgasmic reconditioning.
c. stimulus substitution.
d. aversion therapy.
Answer: d
62) Which is a variation of aversion therapy in which paraphilic fantasies are paired with an aversive stimulus in a client’s imagination?
a. covert sensitization
b. desensitization
c. counter arousal technique
d. contrary modeling
Answer: a
63) Which is not true about social skills training?
a. It focuses on helping the individual improve his or her ability to relate to others.
b. The client may role-play desired behaviours.
c. Attention is focused on encouraging the client to express deeper emotions.
d. The therapist might first model a desired behaviour.
Answer: c
64) Nic is being treated for his paraphilia by first imagining the paraphilic object to become sexually aroused. Next, just before orgasm, he is instructed to switch from the paraphilic imagery to culturally appropriate imagery. The technique being used is called
a. social skills training.
b. aversion therapy.
c. orgasmic reconditioning.
d. systematic desensitization.
Answer: c
65) The use of SSRIs to treat paraphilias is based on the assumption that paraphilias might be a
a. type of obsessive-compulsive disorder.
b. form of depression.
c. variant of post-traumatic stress disorder.
d. mood dysfunction.
Answer: a
66) Grubin reported that SSRIs may be helpful in the treatment of which paraphilias?
a. sadism, frotteurism, transvestism
b. exhibitionism, voyeurism, fetishism
c. frotteurism, telephone scatologia, exhibitionism
d. toucherism, telephone scatolgia, transnvestism
Answer: b
67) In some men, the intensity of their sex drive and the urge to act on their paraphilic impulses can be lowered through the use of
a. hydroxyalpha inhibitor.
b. protease inhibitors.
c. androgen supplementation.
d. medroxyprogesterone actate.
Answer: d
68) John Bradford, an Ottawa psychiatrist, has suggested a six-level schema for treatment of paraphilia based on the severity of the deviation. The best description of the treatment would be
a. a combination of cognitive-behavioural treatment and medication.
b. insight-oriented therapy followed by successively advanced social skills training.
c. step-wise behaviour therapy.
d. a combination of psychoanalysis and SSRI.
Answer: a
69) Paul Fedoroff, an Ottawa psychiatrist, questions the value of MPA to treat paraphilia because it
a. does not deal with the underlying causes.
b. has debilitating side effects.
c. has a high refusal and dropout rate.
d. is not conducive to evaluation through clinical trials.
Answer: c
70) Which of the following is not a term utilized in the textbook to describe a psychological disorder in which a person is unable to control an excessively frequent sexual behaviour?
a. sexual addiction
b. hypersexuality
c. compulsive sexual behaviour
d. hyperphillia
Answer: d
71) A therapist who prescribes antidepressants to a patient who is unable to control extremely frequent sexual behaviours is likely informed by which of the following conceptualizations of the behaviour?
a. obsessive-compulsive
b. cognitive-behavioural
c. Jungian
d. addiction
Answer: a
72) Which of the following diagnostic categories is under consideration for inclusion in the forthcoming DSM due in May 2013?
a. masturbatory pathos
b. hypersexuality
c. hyperphilia
d. sexual addiction
Answer: b
73) According to the textbook, our scientific understanding of paraphilias
a. is in its infancy.
b. has benefited from several recent breakthroughs.
c. is well developed enough that standardized, well-evaluated, treatments are available for some of the paraphilias.
d. has been dominated by the psychoanalytic perspective.
Answer: a
74) For each of the following descriptions of an atypical sexual pattern, match the pattern with the correct term.
75) In North American culture, sexual practices such as oral sex were once considered deviant or abnormal.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
76) The psychiatric diagnosis of paraphilia requires that the person has acted on the urges or is distinctly distressed by them.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
77) Cross-dressing to achieve sexual arousal is generally a harmless and victimless paraphilia.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
78) Sexual masochism is the most common paraphilia among women.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
79) Auto-erotic asphyxia is also known as autophilia.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
80) It is common practice for most mutually agreed upon S&M scenarios to have few or any rules related to levels of power and domination.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
81) Unlike other paraphilias, exhibitionism is more common among women than men.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
82) Transvestism and transsexualism are conceptually distinct.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
83) Urophilia is rooted in urogenital abnormalities.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
84) Psychoanalytic theory suggests that many paraphilias are rooted in castration anxiety.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
85) The cognitive-behavioural perspective suggests that many fetishes and paraphilias are learned.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
86) Like exhibitionists, voyeurs seek to become sexually aroused by shocking their victims.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
87) Sex offenders typically claim that they are able to control their paraphilic impluses.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
88) Antidepressants are often used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorders and, therefore, may be a good candidate to treat some cases of paraphilia.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
89) Psychotherapists utilizing an addiction model to understand excessively frequent, out of control, sexual behaviours are likely to encourage patients to join Sexaholics Anonymous.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
90) Discuss the difficulties involved in defining normal versus abnormal sexual behaviour.
– distinction between statistical abnormality versus abnormality in terms of harm
Answer:
– a behavior is not necessarily abnormal just because not many people do it
– culture and society affect practices
91) List four different paraphilias. Describe the characteristic behaviours associated with each paraphilia and theories as to how each paraphilia develops.
Answer:
– fetishism, voyeurism, necrophila, klismaphilia, coprophilia, urophilia, frotteurism, zoophilia, sadism, masochism, S&M, telephone scatologia, exhibitionism, transvestism
92) Compare and contrast the psychoanalytic and cognitive-behavioural explanations for how paraphilias develop within the individual. Give examples of how these perspectives can be applied to understanding the development of specific types of paraphilias.
Answer:
– psychological defences due to castration fear (psychoanalytic)
– learned behaviour (cognitive-behavioural)
– e.g., transvestism arising from castration anxiety
– e.g., fetishism arising from watching mother in childhood and eroticizing her behaviour
93) Describe the less common paraphilias and what the potential causes of such disorders are thought to arise from.
Answer:
– klismaphilia: enemas—parents administering them in childhood
– coprophilia: feces—association with feces and arousal in childhood
– urophilia: urine—association with urine and arousal in childhood
94) Compare and contrast sexual addiction and compulsive sexual behaviour. Describe the treatments that might be used for each condition.
Answer:
– Sexual addiction is similar to other addictions like alcohol and gambling.
– Compulsive sexual behaviour is considered an obsessive compulsive disorder.
– Sexaholics Anonymous is a treatment for sexual addiction.
– Anti-depressants are a treatment for compulsive sexual behaviour.
95) Sexual sadism can be dangerous. Who is this paraphilia named after (and why), and what are the typical characteristics of this disorder?
Answer:
– Marquis de Sade; wrote books about a woman who was subjected to such acts
– persistent, powerful urges and sexual fantasies involving the inflicting of pain and suffering on others to achieve sexual arousal
96) Compare and contrast systematic desensitization, aversion therapy, covert sensitization, and orgasmic reconditioning in treating a fetish.
Answer:
– SD: break the line between the stimulus and the inappropriate response (arousal); relax muscles, expose to stimulus but remain relaxed
– AT: paraphilia is paired repeatedly with an aversive stimulus
– CS: like AT, but fantasies are used
– OR: arouse to stimulus, then change stimulus to something appropriate
97) Should Canadians be concerned with paraphilic behaviours practised between two consenting adults?
Answer:
– Pick an opinion and explain why.
Chapter 16
1) In Canada, sexual assault involving a weapon would be categorized as
a. Level 1.
b. Level 2.
c. Level 3.
d. Level 4.
Answer: b
2) In Canada, rape
a. would be listed as a Level 1 sexual assault.
b. would be listed as an aggravated sexual assault.
c. would be listed as a sexual assault causing bodily harm.
d. was removed from the Criminal Code of Canada and replaced with sexual assault.
Answer: d
3) In Canada, which of the following would be classified as a sexual assault if consent were not given?
a. touching a person’s breasts
b. telling an explicit joke
c. voyeurism
d. obscene phone call
Answer: a
4) Which statement is true with regards to sexual assault?
a. Sexual assault is an act of power and dominance.
b. Sexual assault is an act of sex.
c. Unwanted sexual activity between married individuals is not classified as assault.
d. Unwanted sexual activity between persons of the same sex is not classified as sexual assault.
Answer: a
5) The statute of limitations for prosecution of sexual assault in Canada is
a. 1 year.
b. 5 years.
c. 10 years.
d. There is no statute of limitations for prosecution of sexual assault.
Answer: d
6) Sexual assault classified as Level 3 is characterized by
a. minor physical injury.
b. maiming and disfigurement.
c. threats to use a weapon.
d. threats to injure friends or family members.
Answer: b
7) What statement in true with regards to consent for sexual activity?
a. Consent must be obtained when one partner is under the influence of drugs.
b. Consent must be obtained when one partner is intoxicated.
c. Consent must be obtained when one partner is underage.
d. Consent must be obtained when an individual is not intoxicated, not underage, not unconscious, or not under the influence of drugs.
Answer: d
8) Sexual activity is considered to be sexual assault if
a. consent is not freely given.
b. physical coercion is involved.
c. a weapon is used to threaten an individual.
d. sexual intercourse is involved.
Answer: a
9) In Canada, the majority of reported sexual offenses are classified as
a. Level 1.
b. Level 2.
c. Level 3.
d. sexual harassment.
Answer: a
10) In terms of the number of sexual offenses that were reported over the past decades, the number has
a. increased.
b. increased in line with population growth.
c. stayed the same.
d. decreased.
Answer: d
11) In Canada, the sexual assault rate is highest among those aged
a. 15–24.
b. 25–44.
c. 45–55.
d. 55 and older.
Answer: a
12) Approximately ________ of Canadian college and university women reported they had been coerced, either verbally or physically, to have unwanted sex.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
Answer: b
13) Researchers estimate that ____ in _____ sexual assaults are never reported to police.
a. 1; 50
b. 1; 25
c. 1; 10
d. 1; 100
Answer: c
14) In Canada, the highest rates of police-reported sexual assault occur in
a. Nunavut.
b. Manitoba.
c. Ontario.
d. Quebec.
Answer: a
15) Statistics from the 2009 General Social Survey (GSS) indicate that approximately ______ of perpetrators of sexual assault are male.
a. 90%
b. 60%
c. 75%
d. 99%
Answer: a
16) One of the central myths about sexual assault in our culture is that most sexual assaults are perpetrated
a. by acquaintances.
b. by husbands against their wives.
c. by strangers.
d. on dates.
Answer: c
17) In stranger sexual assault, it is typical for an assailant to
a. choose a victim and then carefully plan the sexual assault.
b. choose a victim impulsively and immediately commit the sexual assault.
c. invite a woman on a date and then force sex.
d. target prepubescent children.
Answer: a
18) In general, women are more likely to be sexually assaulted by
a. men they know.
b. strangers.
c. criminals.
d. men in positions of power.
Answer: a
19) Women are more likely to report sexual assault to the police when the perpetrator is
a. a stranger.
b. an acquaintance.
c. a family member.
d. an employer.
Answer: a
20) Canadian statistics from 2002 show that approximately ________ of sexual assaults were committed by an acquaintance.
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50%
Answer: d
21) Joanne, a 21-year-old university student, is most likely to be sexually assaulted by
a. a friend or acquaintance.
b. a co-worker.
c. a stranger at the university she attends.
d. a complete stranger, while walking home from university.
Answer: a
22) Police-reported data shows that in 2007, approximately ______ of sexual assaults were committed by strangers.
a. 20%
b. 10%
c. 30%
d. 5%
Answer: a
23) The major motive behind gang sexual assault is
a. anger.
b. power.
c. solidarity.
d. competition.
Answer: b
24) What is the accepted way of expressing sexual consent?
a. not stopping the partner
b. verbally expressing agreement to sexual activity
c. positive body language
d. There has been no real consensus as to the proper definition of consent.
Answer: d
25) Which statement is trueregarding male sexual assault?
a. Most men who sexually assault other men are homosexual.
b. The only motive cited for male sexual assault is retaliation.
c. Males are generally attacked by a single assailant.
d. Most male sexual assaults are perpetrated by other males.
Answer: d
26) Men who sexually assault other men are rarely motivated by
a. revenge.
b. domination.
c. sexual arousal.
d. sadism.
Answer: c
27) Male sexual assault victims
a. are often attacked by multiple assailants.
b. suffer less emotional trauma than female victims.
c. suffer fewer physical injuries than female victims.
d. are more willing to report the sexual assault than female victims.
Answer: a
28) In a study of Canadian male university students, ______ reported that they had been coerced into having sex in the previous year.
a. 10%
b. 5%
c. 50%
d. 20%
Answer: d
29) When ingested, rohypnol casues
a. impaired judgment and heightened sexual arousal.
b. impaired judgment and memory loss.
c. loss of inhibitions and enhanced sexual arousal.
d. paralysis and memory loss.
Answer: b
30) Research on university students supports the connection between ________ and tendencies to sexual assault.
a. having been a victim of sexual assault
b. stereotypical masculine identification
c. the use of pornography
d. gang affiliation
Answer: b
31) Which statement is true regarding partner sexual assault?
a. In Canada, a man cannot be convicted of sexually assaulting his wife.
b. Partner sexual assault is more common than date sexual assault.
c. Men with traditional views of sexual relationships are less likely to commit partner sexual assault.
d. Marital sexual assault is a crime in all societies.
Answer: b
32) As Magdalene’s husband began to drink more, he became more sexually aggressive. In the last three months, he has forced sex on her three times. If she is typical of most victims of marital sexual assault, Magdalene is likely to
a. seek counselling.
b. get the police involved.
c. stay silent and remain with her husband.
d. secretly run away.
Answer: c
33) Which of the following is not one of the myths about sexual assault mentioned in the text?
a. “Women say no when they mean yes.”
b. “Deep down, women want to be assaulted.”
c. “Women make up sexual assault to retaliate against men.”
d. “Women like a man who is forceful and pushy.”
Answer: c
34) College men who held “traditional” views of gender roles were
a. less likely to accept violence against women.
b. more likely to blame sexual assault survivors.
c. less likely to become aroused by depictions of sexual assault.
d. less likely to have engaged in sexual coercion.
Answer: b
35) Which of the following statements best reflects the findings from research on sexually coercive men?
a. Most sexually coercive men are mentally ill.
b. Most sexually coercive men have criminal backgrounds.
c. Sexually coerceive men have lower IQs.
d. There is no single type of man who commits sexual assault.
Answer: d
36) In studies looking for commonalities among individuals who commit sexual assault, evidence suggests that
a. most have antisocial personality disorders.
b. they are generally just as intelligent and mentally fit as others.
c. the majority display narcissistic traits.
d. they come from highly dysfunctional families.
Answer: b
37) Research from 65 studies conducted in 22 countries indicates that approximately ____ % of girls have been sexually abused.
a. 20
b. 5
c. 50
d. 10
Answer: a
38) A father who abuses his preschool child tends to be
a. domineering.
b. authoritarian.
c. independent.
d. passive.
Answer: d
39) Upon release from prison, Canadian sex offenders
a. are mandated to take anti-androgen drugs to reduce their sex drive.
b. undergo psychological interventions to reduce recidivism.
c. must be evaluated for possible surgical castration.
d. must register with the national sex offender registry.
Answer: d
40) Men who are coerced into sexual activity are more likely to
a. be physically pressured.
b. made to feel guilty causing them to “give in.”
c. experience intoxication.
d. be emotionally pressured.
Answer: c
41) Which is not true about posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
a. PTSD is primarily experienced by women.
b. PTSD is brought on by exposure to a traumatic event.
c. People with PTSD may have flashbacks of the traumatic experience.
d. PTSD may persist for years.
Answer: a
42) Research has found that women who experienced sexual coercion in their dating relationships were more likely to have
a. lower levels of self-esteem and sexual self-esteem.
b. higher levels of drug use.
c. many casual sexual partners.
d. a very limited number of sexual partners.
Answer: a
43) A key component of the treatment process for sexual assault survivors is to help the survivor
a. mobilize support.
b. remember the details of the event.
c. forgive the assailant.
d. report the sexual assault to police.
Answer: a
44) Treatment of sexual assault survivors typically involves two stages. What are these two stages?
a. crisis intervention and facilitation of longterm adjustment
b. medication and peer counseling
c. rehabilitation and counseling
d. legal advice and therapy
Answer: a
45) In terms of sexual assault prevention, which of the following is not an appropriate prevention measure?
a. Keep doorways and entries well lit.
b. Check the back seat of your car before entering.
c. List yourself on your mailbox by first initials only.
d. Keep your keys in your pocket while walking to the car since you need your hands free.
Answer: d
46) Ivy has recently broken up with her partner who was quite angry over her rejection of him. Last evening, he showed up at her door asking if they could at least talk about the breakup. What is the best advice for Ivy?
a. Call the police.
b. Let him in, but agree to a time limit.
c. Do not let him in if she feels he is likely to be aggressive.
d. Step outside to talk to him.
Answer: c
47) Research has shown that if attacked, pleading, begging, or attempting to reason with the assailant
a. is an effective strategy for preventing sexual assault.
b. can be effective in some situations.
c. will not stop the sexual assault but will lessen the chance of serious injury.
d. will buy enough time for a passerby to intervene or call the police.
Answer: b
48) Which statement is false with regards to verbal sexual coercion?
a. Verbal coercion is more common that physical coercion.
b. Both men and women use verbal coercion.
c. There is not clear definition of what constitutes verbal coercion.
d. Verbal coercion is rarely used in same-sex relationships.
Answer: d
Diff: 1
49) Which of the following is nota form of child sexual abuse?
a. sex play between children of similar ages
b. intimate kissing between an adult and a child under the age of consent
c. masturbating while a child under the age of consent watches
d. an adult fondling the genitals of a child who gives willing consent
Answer: a
50) In the vast majority of sexual abuse cases, the abuse occurs between a child and
a. a stranger who lures them into a car.
b. a parent.
c. relatives, family friends, or neighbours.
d. a stranger who lures them into his/her apartment or house.
Answer: c
51) With regard to child sexual abuse in Canada, which of the following is true?
a. The majority of victims under the age of 18 were female.
b. Twenty-five percent of sexual assault victims were under the age of 18.
c. Boys over the age of 12 were more likely to be victims.
d. Statistics are unavailable due to laws protecting minors.
Answer: a
52) In contrast to adult sexual assault, child sexual abuse
a. involves more force.
b. always involves penetration.
c. generally involves the use of restraints.
d. rarely involves the use of force.
Answer: d
53) Which of the following would be considered an offense under the Canadian Criminal Code?
a. a 19-year-old assistant store manager having consensual sex with a 16-year-old worker
b. a 13-year-old girl and a 14-year-old boy having sex
c. two 16-year-old males having oral sex
d. two 13-year-old youths participating in oral sex
Answer: a
54) Sean, age 18, has been charged with having sexual intercourse with a minor, age 13. Which of the following claims would help his defense under Canadian law?
a. “She said ‘Yes’ and initiated the sexual activity.”
b. “I didn’t know she was under age.”
c. “A friend told me she was 18.”
d. “When I asked her how old she was, she said ‘18’ and even showed me her ID.”
Answer: d
55) The most common type of child sexual abuse involves
a. oral sex.
b. vaginal penetration.
c. genital fondling.
d. exhibitionism.
Answer: c
56) Sexual abuse of children by women might be underreported because women
a. are allowed a freer range of physical contact with children.
b. do not leave any physical evidence of abuse.
c. are treated more lightly by the justice system.
d. are more careful to cover up their abuse.
Answer: a
57) A clinical diagnosis of pedophilia is made when an individual
a. sexually assaults a prepubescent child.
b. is sexually attracted exclusively to children.
c. has a persistent or recurrent attraction to children.
d. acts on or is distressed by attraction to children.
Answer: d
58) Research indicates that many pedophiles are
a. controlling and seek out children for sexual activity in times of stress.
b. weak, passive, and socially inept.
c. manipulative, aggressive, and socially skilled.
d. passive but socially skilled.
Answer: b
59) “Consanguineous” means
a. sexually inappropriate.
b. related by blood.
c. incestuous.
d. related by marriage.
Answer: b
60) The least common type of incest is
a. father-daughter incest.
b. mother-son incest.
c. stepfather-stepdaughter incest.
d. sibling incest.
Answer: b
61) Many fathers who commit incest with daughters see their daughters as
a. sexual objects.
b. wanting and willing to have sex.
c. a surrogate wife.
d. sexually passive.
Answer: c
62) Which statement regarding the effects of sexual abuse on children is false?
a. Survivors of sexual abuse might become prematurely sexually active.
b. Regressive behaviours are common among abused children.
c. Girls who have been abused tend to become physically aggressive, while boys become depressed and withdrawn.
d. Adolescent girls who have experienced abuse tend to have more psychological problems than girls who haven’t been abused.
Answer: c
63) Marshall and colleagues have suggested a number of approaches to the treatment of sex offenders. Which approach is not one they recommend?
a. Having offenders take responsibility for their actions.
b. Teaching relationship skills.
c. Reconditioning strategies to enhance appropriate sexual interests and reduce deviant ones.
d. Having offenders register on a national sex offender registry and participate in a public notification system.
Answer: d
64) Some Canadian communities have volunteer groups known as Circles of Support and Accountability (COSA) whose two goals are community protection and
a. offender rehabilitation.
b. offender tracking.
c. offender alert.
d. offender labelling.
Answer: a
65) Which of the following is not an example of sexual harassment?
a. asking a co-worker out on a date
b. leering at a co-worker’s body
c. hanging nude pictures in your locker
d. telling sexual jokes
Answer: a
66) Sexual harassment generally involves all of the following except
a. abuse of power.
b. sexual desire.
c. social control.
d. hostility towards women.
Answer: b
67) One of the less common forms of sexual harassment is
a. staring.
b. making sexual jokes.
c. making threats.
d. making comments about women.
Answer: c
68) The most common response of women who experience sexual harassment in the workforce is to
a. file a formal complaint.
b. take legal action against their harasser.
c. quit their job.
d. confront their harasser.
Answer: d
69) Which of the following is true about sexual harassment in the workplace?
a. Employees cannot sue their employers for sexual harassment unless they can prove psychological harm.
b. An employee cannot charge an employer with sexual harassment unless he/she was demoted or deprived of a promotion for failure to comply with sexual requests.
c. Employers cannot be held responsible or sued for sexual harassment if the employee did not first file a complaint within the company.
d. Sexual harassment can include any behaviour of a sexual nature that creates a hostile, intimidating, or offensive environment.
Answer: d
70) In a suvey of Canadian women (1999) approximately how many reported having experienced harassment in the work place in the past year?
a. 50–60%
b. 60–70%
c. 25–30%
d. 10–20%
Answer: a
71) In a study of Canadian students in grades 6 to 8, which of the following conclusions was found regarding sexual harassment?
a. Girls were more likely to be victims.
b. Boys and girls were equally likely to report victimization.
c. Girls were more likely to report perpetration.
d. Boys were more likely to be victims.
Answer: b
72) In a survey (2008) of Ontario high school students, approximately ______ reported that they had been subjected to sexual comments or gestures at school.
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 75%
d. 15%
Answer: a
73) High school boys were most upset by what type of sexual harassment?
a. being targets of sexual comments
b. postings on the internet
c. being targets of sexual rumours or graffiti
d. being treated as a sexual object
Answer: c
74) Which statement is false with regards to sexual harassment?
a. Harassers are just as likely to be female as male.
b. Under Canadian law, sexual harassment is recognized as a form of sex discrimination.
c. Gay, lesbian, and bisexual youth are more likely to experience sexual harassment than heterosexual youth.
d. Women who experience sexual harassment in the workplace are unlikely to report the harassment.
Answer: a
75) Employers can be held responsible for their employees’ harassing behaviour in the workplace if
a. the behaviour involves physical intimidation.
b. the behaviour causes the victim to leave their job.
c. employers were aware of the behaviour and did nothing to stop it.
d. the behaviour is reported to the police.
Answer: c
76) Match the following descriptions of the coercive behaviour with the correct term.
77) In Canada, the number of sexual assaults reported to the police has been declining since 1993.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
78) The prevalence of sexual assault in Canada is similar in all regions.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
79) Most women are sexually assaulted by men they know, not by strangers.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
80) Most men are sexually assaulted by men.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
81) Cases of acquaintance sexual assault are more likely to be reported to the police than cases of stranger assault.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
82) Most sexual assaults in Canada are not reported to the police.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
83) Gang sexual assaults tend to be more vicious than individual attacks.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
84) The legal age of consent in Canada is 14 years.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
85) Charges of date sexual assault often come down to a case of his word against hers.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
86) Most men who sexually assault other men are homosexual.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
87) A number of researchers have found that men who hold more liberal views of gender roles are more likely to sexually assault their partners.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
88) In one study, men who held traditional views of gender roles were more aroused by depictions of sexual assault.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
89) Some researchers believe that our society encourages sexual assault by socializing females to be sexually passive.
a. True
b. False Answer: b
90) Sexually coercive men generally suffer from various degrees of mental illness.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
91) Physical coercion is used more frequently than verbal coercion.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
92) In child sexual abuse, physical force is seldom used because the abuser has already established trust with the child.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
93) Pedophiles are not sexually attracted to adults.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
94) Canadians who go to other countries and have sex with children under the age of 14 can be charged in Canada.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
95) Adolescent girls who were sexually abused tend to avoid sexual activity with their peers.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
96) Sexual jokes, suggestive comments, and sexual innuendos are forms of sexual harassment.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
97) Differentiate between the levels of sexual assault in Canada.
Answer:
– Level 1: non-consensual touching, etc., that does not use a weapon or endangerment
– Level 2: threat with a weapon
– Level 3: disfigurement or endangerment
98) In Canada, the term “rape” was removed from the Criminal Code and replaced with sexual assault. Why do you think this change in terminology occurred?
Answer:
– expanded definition of what constitutes sexual assault (i.e., it’s more than sexual intercourse)
– “assault” defined as a physical crime rather than an act of sex
99) Describe the three forms of incest listed in the textbook and the common result of each of these situations.
Answer:
– father-daughter: injury to daughter, often results in incest in daughter’s family
– brother-sister: often both partners are normal, unless it is forced or punished by parents
– mother-son: often results in incest in son’s family; sometimes the son and mother have children
100) List five suggestions to consider if you are the victim of a sexual assault.
Answer:
– Don’t change anything.
– Consider reporting it.
– Ask someone you know to take you to the hospital.
– Be assertive.
– Question health professionals.
101) List twelve precautions that women can take to lower their risk of sexual assault.
Answer:
– keep keys at the ready; use initials for listing in phone directory; deadbolt; doorways lit; avoid deserted areas; check backseat; don’t give rides; tell partner how far you want to go; meet new dates in public places; state refusal definitively; be aware of fears, vibes, be cautious in new environments
102) Discuss the family factors that appear to contribute to incest.
Answer:
– General family disruption: spousal abuse, dysfunctional marriage, alcoholic or physically abusive parents, stressful events in the father’s life
– fathers abusing older daughters tend to be domineering and authoritarian; abusing young daughters tend to be passive, dependent and have low self-esteem
– uneven power relationship in marriage; wife often rejects husband sexually
– fathers were usually religious, fundamentalist, and moralistic; sexually frustrated
– abuse tends to be repeated from generation to generation
103) Outline the various behaviours that can constitute sexual harassment. Describe one possible scenario that involves workplace harassment.
Answer:
– verbal harassment or abuse; subtle pressure for sexual activity; remarks about a person’s clothing, body or sexual activities; leering or ogling; unwelcome touching, patting, or pinching; brushing against the person’s body; demands for sexual favours accompanied by threats to job or status; physical assault; unwelcome sexual jokes and sexual innuendos
104) Discuss six of the nine suggestions that might be helpful if you are dealing with sexual harassment in the workplace or any other setting.
Answer:
– maintain a record; seek support; convey a professional attitude; discourage harassing behaviour and encourage appropriate behaviour; avoid being alone with the harasser; talk with the harasser; write a letter to the harasser; file a complaint; seek legal remedies
Chapter 17
1) In Canada, procuring and living off the avails of prostitution is
a. legal in all provinces and territories.
b. illegal in all provinces and territories.
c. illegal in all provinces and territories except Quebec and Ontario.
d. legal in all provinces and territories except Prince Edward Island.
Answer: b
2) Prostitution can be traced as far back as
a. Victorian England.
b. ancient Greece.
c. ancient Mesopotamia.
d. the Middle Ages.
Answer: c
3) Throughout recorded history, the major motive for prostitution has been
a. economic.
b. sexual pleasure.
c. the procurement of drugs.
d. unusual sexual acts.
Answer: a
4) Which statement is true about prostitution in Canada?
a. Prostitution is illegal everywhere in Canada.
b. Prostitution is often referred to as “Canada’s newest profession.”
c. Prostitution is legal in Quebec only in province-licensed brothels.
d. Prostitution itself has never been illegal in Canada.
Answer: d
5) In recent years, _______________ has become a more preferred term for “prostitute.”
a. “street walker”
b. “sex worker”
c. “escort”
d. “working girl”
Answer: b
6) Most criminal charges relating to prostitution in Canada are for
a. communicating.
b. procuring.
c. soliciting.
d. dealing.
Answer: a
7) What percentage of Canadians believes that adults should be free to engage in consensual prostitution?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 66%
d. 75%
Answer: b
8) In the business of sex work, “John” refers to
a. a pimp.
b. a customer.
c. a gigolo.
d. a hustler.
Answer: b
9) What is a common method used by police to stop prostitution?
a. citizen complaints
b. walking the streets and arresting all women who are appear to be sex workers
c. letting businesses register, and then closing them down for illegal business
d. entrapment
Answer: d
10) In 2010, the Canadian prostitution laws were challenged by
a. sex workers and legal experts in Ontario and British Columbia
b. far-right religious groups
c. public health experts
d. a coalition of sexual assault centres across Canada
Answer: a
11) A 2009 Angus Reid poll found that _____ of Canadians believed that prostitution should be entirely prohibited.
a. 10 %
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 60%
Answer: b
12) In the hierarchy of sex work, the workers with the least status are the
a. escorts.
b. streetwalkers.
c. brothel workers.
d. massage parlour workers.
Answer: b
13) Sex workers who generally work on their own and charge the most for their services are known as
a. “escorts.”
b. “streetwalkers.”
c. “call girls.”
d. “brothel workers.”
Answer: c
14) What type of sex worker earns the lowest income?
a. call girl
b. streetwalker
c. escort service worker
d. massage parlour worker
Answer: b
15) In a study (2011) of street-based sex workers in Vancouver, approximately what percentage reported that they had experienced violence from clients, pimps, or other sex workers?
a. 85%
b. 72%
c. 55%
d. 98%
Answer: d
16) Robert Pickton from British Columbia was sentenced to prison for at least 25 years because of
a. soliciting a prostitute.
b. living off the avails of prostitution.
c. murdering several streetwalkers.
d. beating several call girls.
Answer: c
17) Pimps do not provide streetwalkers with
a. protection.
b. bail.
c. room and board.
d. a salary.
Answer: d
18) A pimp’s typical cut from a streetwalker’s earnings is
a. 90%.
b. 50%.
c. 35%.
d. 20%.
Answer: a
19) Today, the brothel has largely been replaced by
a. cat houses.
b. streetwalkers.
c. massage parlours.
d. bar prostitutes.
Answer: c
20) Prostitutes who work for escort services typically come from
a. backgrounds involving physical or sexual abuse.
b. lower income families with little education.
c. well-educated, middle-class backgrounds.
d. upper income backgrounds with a history of sexual abuse.
Answer: c
21) In the hierarchy of sex work, those with the highest status are known as
a. call girls.
b. hotel prostitutes.
c. bar prostitutes.
d. brothel workers.
Answer: a
22) According to research (2006), approximately ______ of Canadian sex workers conduct their business transactions on the street.
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 10%
d. 60%
Answer: a
23) Which type of prostitute is generally well-educated, provides conversation and companionship, and generally accompanies her client on “dates”?
a. streetwalker
b. call girl
c. hotel prostitute
d. brothel prostitute
Answer: b
24) Canadian researchers argue that the safety and well-being of sex workers would be enhanced by policies that focus on
a. occupational health and safety, rights, and services.
b. compulsory testing for STIs.
c. greater penalties for men who solicit sex.
d. licensing of brothels.
Answer: d
25) New Zealand’s approach to prostitution is known for
a. its harm reduction and labour rights framework.
b. its success in reducing violence against streetwalkers.
c. its strict stand against the legalization of prostitution.
d. its endorsement of licensed brothels.
Answer: a
26) In Canada, many initiates into prostitution are
a. university students.
b. addicted to drugs.
c. teenage runaways.
d. mentally unstable.
Answer: c
27) Maggie’s, a Toronto based organization, is
a. a school for Johns, run by former sex workers.
b. a hospice for sex workers with AIDS.
c. a peer-education project run by sex workers.
d. a support group for sex workers with addictions.
Answer: c
28) Two factors that figure prominently in the backgrounds of many sex workers are
a. poverty and promiscuity.
b. drug abuse and teen pregnancy.
c. poverty and sexual/physical abuse.
d. sexual/physical abuse and low self-esteem.
Answer: c
29) “Kept boys”
a. are male prostitutes who cater to older women.
b. are male prostitutes who have intercourse before the age of 14.
c. have relationships with older “sugar daddies.”
d. are prison inmates who are sexually abused by older inmates.
Answer: c
30) “Habitual” Johns use prostitutes
a. as their major or exclusive sexual outlet.
b. because they desire novelty or sexual variety.
c. to satisfy specific fetishes.
d. because they lack social skills.
Answer: a
31) Men who pay female sex workers
a. come from lower income backgrounds.
b. represent all socioeconomic backgrounds.
c. have troubled marriages.
d. are socially inept and unable to establish lasting relationships.
Answer: b
32) Which of the following is not a common motive for using prostitution?
a. sex for eroticism and variety
b. difficulty attracting a partner
c. sex without negotiation
d. sex for emotional commitment
Answer: d
33) Which of the following is not a reason cited in the text for using a prostitute?
a. You can have sex without negotiation.
b. You can test your sexual identity.
c. You can obtain sexual variety.
d. You can have sex without commitment.
Answer: b
34) Who of the following is not a typical client of prostitutes?
a. men who travel frequently on business or who are from out of town
b. men who are lonely
c. men who want to humiliate their wives or retaliate against them
d. men who have no other sexual outlets due to disability or impairment
Answer: c
35) Which of the following statements does not reflect the findings from a survey of Vancouver men arrested for soliciting?
a. They ranged in age from 18 to 92 years.
b. More than half were married or in serious relationships.
c. Many exhibited deviant sexual tendencies and higher than average sex drives.
d. Incomes, education, and ethnic backgrounds were similar to the general Vancouver population.
Answer: c
36) Most male prostitutes service
a. older, wealthy women.
b. gay men.
c. married men who want to experiment with gay sex.
d. bisexual men.
Answer: b
37) What male sex worker has the lowest status in the male sex trade?
a. punks
b. bar hustlers
c. drag prostitutes
d. kept boys
Answer: b
38) “Punks” are
a. heterosexual men posing as gay hustlers.
b. gay men.
c. male versions of call girls.
d. prison inmates receiving protection or goods for sex.
Answer: d
39) Male prostitution is described in the text as
a. a relatively rare occurrence.
b. a dangerous enterprise.
c. an illegal activity.
d. an adolescent enterprise.
Answer: d
40) Studies have shown that female sex workers were at greatest risk of STI infection from sex with
a. younger clients.
b. Johns.
c. older clients.
d. non-clients.
Answer: d
41) SEM stands for
a. sexually exposing material.
b. sexually explicit movies.
c. sexually erotic material.
d. sexually explicit material.
Answer: d
42) Julian is a “kept boy.” In the culture of male prostitution, what does this mean?
a. He has an older male client who serves in a parental role and keeps him economically secure.
b. He works through an agency or escort service that serves wealthy clients.
c. He is a prison inmate who is used for sex and rewarded with protection from other inmates.
d. He is a streetwalker who frequents districts where men search for homosexual sex.
Answer: a
43) “Prurient” means
a. pure.
b. tending to excite lust; lewd.
c. pornographic.
d. erotic.
Answer: b
44) Which of the following is not one of the main positions on sexually explicit material identified in the pornography debates?
a. obscenity-based approach
b. liberal position
c. religious-based approach
d. pro-pornography feminist approach
Answer: c
45) Which of the following is not a reason that feminists oppose pornography?
a. Pornography portrays women as objects.
b. Pornography presents women in dehumanizing ways.
c. Pornography promotes gender inequality.
d. Pornography challenges sexual stereotypes.
Answer: d
46) In defining pornography as “writing, pictures, etc., intended to arouse desire,” the most problematic word is
a. “desire.”
b. “intended.”
c. “arouse.”
d. “writing.”
Answer: b
47) Something that offends community standards is
a. an obscenity.
b. pornographic.
c. erotica.
d. hard core SEM.
Answer: a
48) Legislative bodies usually write laws about ________ rather than pornography.
a. obscenity
b. prostitution
c. erotica
d. SEM
Answer: a
49) SEM is defined as
a. “written, visual, or audiotaped material that is graphic and produced for purposes of eliciting sexual arousal.”
b. “written material that is graphic and produced for purposes of eliciting prurient interest.”
c. “visual material that is erotic but not considered obscene.”
d. “material that does not fall within the obscenity laws of Canada but is often viewed negatively by the public.”
Answer: a
50) In Canada, an obscene publication is any publication in which the dominant characteristic is the undue exploitation of
a. children.
b. violence.
c. sex.
d. women.
Answer: c
51) Erotica is generally defined as
a. “any literary or visual depiction that is obscene.”
b. “any literary or visual depiction that is sexually explicit.”
c. “sexually explicit material that doesn’t involve the degradation of women.”
d. “any literary or visual depiction intended to arouse sexual desire.”
Answer: c
52) In Canada, censorship and/or classification of films is
a. a federal responsibility.
b. a provincial responsibility.
c. a regional responsibility.
d. discussed and addressed on an individual basis.
Answer: b
53) In 2005, legislation was passed to narrow the defence allowed for individuals accused of possessing child pornography. The accused must prove that they were using the material for legitimate purposes related to the administration of all of the following except
a. justice.
b. science.
c. art.
d. recreation.
Answer: d
54) A survey of Canadian university students (2005) found what percentage of men and women accessed nude pictures online?
a. 95% men and 50% of women
b. 75% of men and 25% of women
c. 50% of men and 50% of women
d. 85% of men and 75% of women
Answer: a
55) Which statement is true regarding male or female reactions to pornography?
a. Very few women, and most men, are physiologically aroused by pornography.
b. Men are more aroused by depictions of oral sex than women.
c. Both women and men are physiologically aroused by pornography.
d. Women are more aroused by depictions of intercourse than of oral sex.
Answer: c
56) A Canadian commission on prostitution and pornography found that exposure to pornography
a. increased the risk of committing a violent crime against women.
b. did not lead to crimes of violence or sexual offenses.
c. led to sexual offenses such as exhibitionism and voyeurism.
d. increased the risk of committing a sexual assault.
Answer: b
57) Which position on pornography argues that access to SEM is a matter of individual liberty and free expression?
a. conservative position
b. Libertarian position
c. pro-pornography feminist approach
d. liberal position
Answer: d
58) Research investigating links between pornography and violence or sexual aggression has generally concluded that
a. pornography increases sexual aggression in men but not women.
b. the use of pornography with violent themes causes men to commit more crimes.
c. more aggressive men are drawn to violent pornography.
d. there is no correlation between pornography and violence in any subgroups of men studied.
Answer: c
59) A variety of research on exposure of men to violent pornography has concluded that
a. exposure to violent pornography does not lead to any attitudinal changes.
b. exposure to violent pornography leads men to become more accepting of sexual assault myths.
c. exposure to violence, not necessarily pornography, reinforces negative attitudes towards women.
d. exposure to violent pornography actually decreased arousal among men.
Answer: c
60) Pro-pornography feminists believe that pornography can promote greater
a. gender expression.
b. sexual freedom.
c. sexual satisfaction.
d. gender equality.
Answer: d
61) Some research suggests that repeated exposure to non-violent pornography
a. decreases male aggression towards women.
b. affects attitudes towards traditional sexual and family values.
c. increases acceptance of sexual assault myths in both men and women.
d. results in more extramarital affairs.
Answer: b
62) Brown (2003) argues that prolonged exposure to pornography might foster
a. dissatisfaction with the physical appearance of one’s partner.
b. attitudes of disrespect for one’s partner.
c. acceptance of marital sexual assault.
d. greater sexual satisfaction with one’s intimate partner.
Answer: a
63) At least _______ of internet visits involve sexually oriented content.
a. one-third
b. one-half
c. three-quarters
d. one-quarter
Answer: a
64) For each of the following decisions regarding commercial sex, match the description with the correct title/name.
65) Prostitution is illegal in Canada.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
66) In Victorian England, prostitution was widely regarded as a necessary outlet for men to satisfy their sexual appetites.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
67) In a Compass poll (1998) of Canadians, people in their twenties were more accepting of prostitution than older Canadians..
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
68) Not all advertised massage and escort services are fronts for prostitution.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
69) Massage parlour workers occupy the bottom rung in the hierarchy of sex work.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
70) Prostitutes are rarely physically abused by their pimps.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
71) Massage parlours escape prosecution if they do not offer sexual services that include penetration and oral sex.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
72) Hustlers typically are not attached to a pimp; they generally make contacts with clients in gay bars and social clubs or by working the streets.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
73) Massage parlours can be a front for sex work.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
74) The trafficking of young boys and girls for sexual exploitation is a major component of the global business of human trafficking.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
75) The exchange of sex for money violates the Criminal Code of Canada.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
76) Most sex workers tend to come from similar backgrounds.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
77) Typical customers of prostitutes have difficulty forming sexual relationships with other women.
a. True
b. False Answer: b
78) Some men who are compulsive users of prostitutes suffer from a complex where they see women as either sinners or saints.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
79) Stripping is not considered to be a type of sex work.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
80) Cybersex compulsives are likened to drug addicts in the text.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
81) The Fraser Commission Report concluded that the available evidence did not support the belief that pornography leads to such antisocial behavior as violent crime.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
82) Researchers have found that both men and women are physiologically aroused by sexually explicit material.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
83) Research has not proven conclusively that there is a link between men’s use of pornography and violent sexual behaviour.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
84) The Supreme Court of Canada provides provincial film censorship boards with clear definitions of what is deemed obscene.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
85) Fifty percent of Canadians believe that some aspects of prostitution that are currently illegal should be legalized.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
86) Studies indicate that convicted child sex offenders who view violent pornography are more likely to reoffend.
a. True
b. False Answer: a
87) Research has shown that exposing men to sexually explicit material causes men to become more accepting of sexual assault myths.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
88) Research shows that the sexual explicitness in violent SEM reinforces the sexual behaviour of sex offenders.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
89) Repeated exposure to non-violent SEM has little impact on an individual’s attitudes towards relationships and sexual values.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b
90) Identify and discuss five of the most common motives for engaging in sexual activity with sex worker.
Answer:
– sex without negotiation; sex without emotional commitment; sex for eroticism and variety; prostitution as a social outlet; sex away from home; difficulty attracting a partner
91) Discuss several factors that may lead to the decision to engage in sex work.
Answer:
– homelessness, poverty, sexual abuse, runaway
– good pay (escorts, strippers), control over work
– no one factor that leads women to sex work
– male sex workers have similar reasons for engaging in sex work; research with male sex workers also mentions substance abuse, sexual abuse
92) Distinguish between pornography, obscenity, and erotica. Give examples of each.
Answer:
– pornography: written, visual, or audiotaped material that is sexually explicit and produced for the purposes of eliciting or enhancing sexual arousal; negative connotation and associated with SEM that is violent and/or degrading
– obscenity: that which offends people’s feelings or goes beyond prevailing standards of decency or modesty
– erotica: SEM that did not involve violence or degradation against women
93) Discuss the difficulties involved in censorship of photos, such as the one presented on the cover of Echo magazine (World of Diversity. Should this photo be censored?).
Answer:
– opinion
– difficult to define what is obscene or offensive; how to define community standards
Diff: 2
Type: ES
Page Reference: 483
Skill: Conceptual
94) Discuss the Butler case and the outcomes regarding law that resulted from this case.
Answer:
– Butler: Winnipeg store that sold sexually explicit videos; he argued that he had a right according to the Charter of Rights and Freedoms.
– Outcome: three categories for obscenity. First involves material that mixes sex with violence and/or includes children; second includes material that involves sex and degradation and is seen as thus encouraging violence or harm to women; third involves SEM that is considered nonviolent and not degrading to women and does not include children (not seen as obscene)
95) Give four examples of advertisements you recently encountered that use sex to sell. Evaluate these ads in terms of how women and/or men were portrayed or utilized.
Answer:
– beer ads, perfume ads, alcohol ads, fitness ads, food ads, clothing ads
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