Module 09 Information Systems Computer Concepts for End Users test bank

---

 

Download  file with the answers

If you are not a member register here to download this file 

---

 

1. A(n) ____________ system collects, stores, and processes data to provide useful, accurate, and timely information, typically within the context of an organization.
ANSWER: information

2. The scope of an information system includes which of the following?
a. Computers, communications networks, and data
b. People and products
c. Policies and procedures
d. All of the above

3. A(n) _____________ is a group of people working together to accomplish a goal.
a. information system
b. organization
c. TPS
d. MIS

4. Every organization has a goal or plan that’s referred to as its ___________.
ANSWER: mission

5. Information systems designed for a specific industry or enterprise may use vertical market software.
a. True
b. False

6. Horizontal market software is designed to meet the needs of a single industry while vertical market software meets the needs of many different industries.
a. True
b. False

7. __________ are the people who directly carry out the organization’s mission.
ANSWER: Workers

8. _________ determine organizational goals and plan how to achieve those goals.
ANSWER: Managers

9. The emphasis on long-range and future goals is referred to as _________ planning.
ANSWER: strategic

10. Information systems can provide some or all of the data needed for strategic and tactical planning but not operational planning.
a. True
b. False

11. One of the major functions of an information system is to help people make decisions in response to problems.
a. True
b. False

12. In an information system, problems can be classified into three types: structured, ________, and unstructured.
ANSWER: semi-structured

13. Which type of problem requires human intuition as the basis for finding a solution?
a. Structured
b. Unstructured
c. Semi-structured
d. None of the above

14. A(n) ___________ processing system provides a way to collect, process, store, display, modify, or cancel transactions.
ANSWER: transaction

15. Most modern transaction processing systems use ________ processing—a real-time method in which each transaction is processed as it is entered.
a. batch
b. online
c. inline
d. none of the above

16. A transaction processing system is characterized by its ability to:
a. collect, display, and modify transactions.
b. store transactions.
c. list transactions.
d. all of the above.

17. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a management information system?
a. Collects, displays, and modifies transactions
b. Provides useful information for managerial activities
c. Increases managerial efficiency
d. Produces routine and on-demand reports

18. A(n) ___________ report contains information that is outside of normal or acceptable ranges.
ANSWER: exception

19. A decision ____________ system helps people make decisions by directly manipulating data, accessing data from external sources, generating statistical projections, and creating data models of various scenarios.
ANSWER: support

20. One type of decision support system (DSS), called an executive information system, is designed to provide senior managers with information relevant to ___________ management activities such as setting policies, planning, and preparing budgets.
ANSWER: strategic

21. A DSS derives its name from the fact that it provides the tools a decision maker needs to analyze data.
a. True
b. False

22. A DSS manipulates the data needed to make a decision as well as making a decision.
a. True
b. False

23. The process of designing, entering, and testing the rules in an expert system is referred to as __________.
a. decision analysis
b. knowledge engineering
c. programming
d. decision modeling

24. An expert system __________ is a software tool containing an inference engine and a user interface that developers use to enter facts and rules for a knowledge base.
ANSWER: shell

25. Expert systems are designed to deal with data that is imprecise or with problems that have more than one solution using a technique called __________ logic.
ANSWER: fuzzy

26. ____________ refers to business transactions that are conducted electronically over a computer network.
ANSWER: Ecommerce

27. Which ecommerce classification encompasses online storefronts selling merchandise and services to consumers?
a. C2C (consumer-to-consumer)
b. B2B (business-to-business)
c. B2C (business-to-consumer)
d. B2G (business-to-government)

28. Which ecommerce classification encompasses consumers selling merchandise and services to each other?
a. C2C
b. B2G
c. B2C
d. B2B

29. An ecommerce ____________ is the software that handles ecommerce transactions.
ANSWER: application

30. An online shopping cart uses _________ to store information about a customer’s activities on an ecommerce site.
ANSWER: cookies

31. On an ecommerce site, after finding a(n) _________ with a cart ID number, the site can display the cart’s contents to the customer.
ANSWER: cookie

32. A key component of an ecommerce application is an online _________.
a. DSS
b. cookie
c. MIS
d. cart

33. Payment processing is based on an online payment __________ that authorizes credit and debit cards, PayPal, and Apple Pay transactions.
ANSWER: gateway

34. At an ecommerce site, the merchant’s ecommerce application carries out only the first and last stages of the payment process.
a. True
b. False

35. A(n) ___________ is the sequence of organizations, people, activities, information, and resources involved in moving a product or service from supplier to customer.
a. supply chain
b. payment gateway
c. ecommerce application
d. payment processing routine

36. Technically, a supply chain stretches from raw materials and parts all the way to customer delivery.
a. True
b. False

37. Businesses use ___________ chain management to maximize efficiency and profitability by tracking the movement of raw materials and products.
ANSWER: supply

38. The goal of supply chain management (SCM) is to supply customers with the right product at the right price.
a. True
b. False

39. Data for SCM does not necessarily take into account customer demand for products.
a. True
b. False

40. In business circles, the galaxy of services that revolves around customers is called customer ___________ management.
ANSWER: relationship

41. Customer __________ programs such as Zappos Rewards and VIP help attract and retain customers.
ANSWER: loyalty

42. A major source of data for customer relationship management (CRM) is produced by loyalty programs.
a. True
b. False

43. _______ applications provide optimal information when they encompass customer support, marketing, and sales.
a. SCM
b. CRM
c. Supply chain
d. All of the above

44. Which of the following is not a core component of a CRM system?
a. Sales
b. Marketing
c. Customer support
d. Payment gateway

45. The acronym ERP stands for enterprise relationship payment.
a. True
b. False

46. In addition to sales, CRM, and SCM, the modules in an ERP system support business activities such as _____________.
a. product planning
b. manufacturing and purchasing
c. inventory control and distribution
d. all of the above

47. The use of several databases is one of ERP’s major advantages.
a. True
b. False

48. A(n) _____ system can provide such benefits as improved overall performance by standardizing business processes based on best practices or improved access to information from a single database to an enterprise.
ANSWER: ERP

49. An information system progresses through several phases as it is developed, used, and finally retired. These phases are usually referred to by the acronym _________.
ANSWER: SDLC

50. A(n) _________ SDLC can be used to create and implement a small subset of a system and then enhance it through a series of upgrades.
ANSWER: iterative

51. Iterative SDLCs are often referred to as “agile methods” because they allow flexibility as development progresses.
a. True
b. False

52. Systems analysis and design is a discipline that focuses on developing information systems according to the phases of a(n) _________. (Hint: Use the acronym.)
ANSWER: SDLC

53. Iterative SDLCs are often referred to as “______ methods” because they allow flexibility as development progresses.
ANSWER: agile

54. The goal of the planning phase for an information system project is to create a(n) ____________.
a. iterative SDLC
b. systems analysis and design
c. project development plan
d. system development life cycle

55. The planning phase of an SDLC includes all of the following except _________.
a. assembling the project team
b. writing a requirements report
c. justifying the project
d. producing a project development plan

56. A widely accepted technique called __________ application design is based on the idea that the best information systems are designed when end users and systems analysts work together on a project as equal partners.
ANSWER: joint

57. JAD provides a structured methodology for planning and holding a series of meetings in which users and analysts jointly identify problems and look for solutions.
a. True
b. False

58. Which of the following is not included in Michael Porter’s Five Forces model?
a. Supply chain efficiency
b. Bargaining power of buyers
c. Bargaining power of suppliers
d. Threat of new entrants

59. Which business practice is a technique initiated by top management that involves all employees and all departments and focuses on quality assurance in every product and service offered to customers?
a. BPM
b. SDLC
c. MRP
d. TQM

60. __________ methodology focuses on the processes that take place within an information system.
ANSWER: Structured

61. Information engineering methodology treats an information system as a collection of objects that interact to accomplish tasks.
a. True
b. False

62. Industry standard tools for scheduling and project management include PERT, WBS, and ________.
a. TQM
b. BPM
c. ERP
d. Gantt charts

63. The goal of the ____________ phase of an SDLC is to produce a list of requirements for a new or revised information system.
ANSWER: analysis

64. Which of the following is not part of the analysis phase of an SDLC?
a. Develop a project schedule.
b. Determine system requirements.
c. Write requirements report.
d. Study the current system.

65. System _________ are the criteria for successfully solving problems identified in an information system.
ANSWER: requirements

66. A document called a system requirements report describes the objectives for an information system.
a. True
b. False

67. In data flow diagram (DFD) terminology, a(n) ____________ entity is a person, an organization, or a device outside the information system that originates or receives data.
ANSWER: external

68. In DFD terminology, a data store is a process that changes data by performing a calculation, updating information, or sorting a list.
a. True
b. False

69. The current standard for object-oriented documentation is referred to as ______.
a. XML
b. UML
c. HTML
d. DSS

70. One type of UML diagram documents the users, or actors, of an information system and the functions they perform. Any task an actor performs is called a use _______.
ANSWER: case

71. In object-oriented documentation, a(n) __________ diagram provides the name of each object, a list of each object’s attributes, a list of methods, and an indication of the associations between objects.
ANSWER: class

72. A(n) _________ tool is a software application designed for documenting system requirements, diagramming current and proposed information systems, scheduling development tasks, and developing computer programs.
ANSWER: CASE

73. In the ________ phase of the SDLC, the project team must figure out how the new system will fulfill the requirements specified in the system requirements report.
ANSWER: design

74. The design phase of an SDLC includes all of the following except _________.
a. select hardware and software
b. develop application specifications
c. identify potential solutions
d. write requirements report

75. A(n) ____________ system consists of hardware and application software designed to offer a complete information system solution.
ANSWER: turnkey

76. An application development tool is essentially a software construction kit containing building blocks that can be assembled into a software product.
a. True
b. False

77. Application software for an information system is usually a series of preprogrammed software modules supplied by a software publisher.
a. True
b. False

78. Using a(n) ________ support worksheet, the project team can assign scores to each criterion, weigh them, and compare totals for all solutions.
ANSWER: decision

79. During the design phase of an SDLC, if the project team selects a solution that requires custom programming, the team’s systems analysts will create a set of ________ specifications.
ANSWER: application

80. Detailed application specifications can be developed before or after selecting the hardware and software for an information system.
a. True
b. False

81. Proposed changes to application specifications should be managed within a formal process that includes written change _______.
ANSWER: requests

82. Some projects fail because of constant, unmanaged demand for changes, often referred to as ________.
ANSWER: feature creep

83. In the __________ phase of the SDLC, the project team chooses a solution, selects hardware and software, and designs detailed application specifications.
ANSWER: design

84. The implementation phase of an SDLC includes all of the following except _________.
a. obtain approval
b. purchase or contract for hardware and software
c. test applications
d. create applications

85. During the ____________ phase of the SDLC, the project team supervises the tasks necessary to construct the new information system.
ANSWER: implementation

86. As the design phase of an SDLC begins, programming languages, development tools, and application software needed for the new information system are purchased, installed, and tested to ensure that they work correctly.
a. True
b. False

87. During the ____________ phase, new hardware is purchased, installed, and tested to ensure that it operates correctly.
ANSWER: implementation

88. Software ____________ is the process of modifying a commercial application to reflect an organization’s needs.
ANSWER: customization

89. ____________ testing is the process of trying out various sequences of input values and checking the results to verify that the application works as it was designed.
ANSWER: Application

90. After unit and integration testing are completed, _________ testing ensures that all hardware and software components work together.
a. application
b. system
c. unit
d. integration

91. System ___________ describes a system’s features, hardware architecture, and programming.
ANSWER: documentation

92. _________ documentation describes how to interact with the system to accomplish specific tasks.
ANSWER: User

93. __________ documentation describes a system’s features, hardware architecture, and programming.
ANSWER: System

94. System documentation contains step-by-step instructions for performing specific tasks.
a. True
b. False

95. System ____________ refers to the process of deactivating an old information system and activating a new one.
ANSWER: conversion

96. Acceptance testing is designed to verify that the new information system works as required.
a. True
b. False

97. The maintenance phase of an SDLC includes all of the following except _________.
a. make backups
b. optimize for speed and security
c. convert data
d. revise as necessary to meet business needs

98. The ____________ phase of the SDLC involves the day-to-day operation of the system, making modifications to improve performance, and correcting problems.
ANSWER: maintenance

99. The term quality of service refers to the level of performance a computer system provides.
a. True
b. False

100. Three key concepts that ensure good quality of service include all of the following except _______.
a. reliability
b. convertibility
c. availability
d. serviceability

101. A quality-of-service ____________ is a technique used for measuring a specific QoS characteristic.
ANSWER: metric

102. Many organizations establish a(n) ____________staffed by technical support specialists who are familiar with the information system’s software.
ANSWER: help desk

103. A(n) ______________ rating of 150,000 hours means that, on average, a device could function for 150,000 hours before failing. (Hint: Use the acronym.)
ANSWER: MTBF

104. Common threats to corporate information systems are limited to software failures and security breaches.
a. True
b. False

105. Human errors are mistakes made by computer operators.
a. True
b. False

106. Acts of war affect only computer systems located on battlefronts.
a. True
b. False

107. A(n) ___________ is a specialized facility designed to hold and protect computer systems and data.
ANSWER: data center

108. A(n) __________ center is where several corporations lease space and equipment to hold and protect their data.
ANSWER: colocation

109. Data centers are designed to proactively reduce the risk of data loss that might occur as a result of a disaster.
a. True
b. False

110. Dark data centers are an extension of ___________, which allows system administrators to monitor and manage servers using remote control software.
a. colocation
b. fuzzy logic
c. lights-out management
d. none of the above

111. A(n) ____________ is a step-by-step description of the methods used to secure data against disaster and a set of guidelines for how an organization will recover lost data and resume operations if and when a disaster occurs.
ANSWER: disaster recovery plan

112. A data _________ is an incident in which personal data is viewed, accessed, or retrieved without authorization.
ANSWER: breach

113. Hacking accounts for about 90% of data breaches.
a. True
b. False

114. ___________ is the fraudulent use of someone’s personal information to carry out transactions.
ANSWER: Identity theft

115. Which type of security measure reduces the effect of an attack by using data backups, disaster recovery plans, and the availability of redundant hardware devices?
a. Corrective procedures
b. Preventive countermeasures
c. Detection activities
d. Deterrents

116. Which type of security measure reduces the likelihood of a deliberate attack?
a. Preventive countermeasures
b. Detection activities
c. Corrective procedures
d. Deterrents

117. Most states in the United States have data breach notification statutes that require corporations to take specific steps if a data breach exposes personally identifiable information.
a. True
b. False

118. Once you’ve released data to an information system, you still have control of its distribution or its security.
a. True
b. False

119. Which of the following is not a step that a data breach victim should take?
a. Change your passwords
b. Activate a fraud alert
c. Get informed about the breach
d. Purchase a new computer or device

120. A(n) _________ informs potential lenders that they must verify the identity of anyone attempting to open an account in your name.
ANSWER: fraud alert

121. Fraud alerts interfere with your ability to receive instant credit.
a. True
b. False